WebApr 29, 2024 · “Fine with me” means the same as “fine by me.” It’s more common for higher-ups in business to use it in speaking than anything else. It’s the more formal … WebBoth are correct because they have two different meanings. I am fine with either bananas or apples. You can give me the one you do not want. Also, I am fine with both the apple and the banana. If you don't want either I will eat them both. 8 More posts you may like r/EnglishLearning Join • 18 days ago How do you call these? 489 365
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WebAug 10, 2024 · English (US) Both are awkward and more or less mean the same thing. Something that would be a little bit more clear would be like this I am OK with any of those times. Any time is good for me. Any of those times work for me. More casually: I am good with any of those times. Or, I am good with all of those time slots. See a translation 3 likes WebJul 28, 2016 · Both can be used however a more natural, casual way to say this would be "Time works for me" They are both correct! English (US) French (France) German Italian Japanese Korean Polish Portuguese (Brazil) Portuguese (Portugal) Russian Simplified Chinese (China) Spanish (Mexico) Traditional Chinese (Taiwan) Turkish Vietnamese convert word 2003 to 2010
meaning - "They all are fine" vs. "they are all fine" - English ...
Nov 3, 2024 · WebTo me as a non-native English speaker, "They all are fine." seems better — it should mean that each of my family members is fine whereas "They are all fine." should mean that each of my family members is completely fine. Please correct my understanding if there is anything wrong. meaning differences word-order determiners Share WebMay 12, 2016 · English (British and Australian) Aug 29, 2013. #2. The following variations are correct: Either day is fine for me. Either of the days is fine for me. (when the choice is between two days) All of the days are fine for me. All days are fine for me. faltu show